I found this in your archives which states that Christ died for all men, how does that agree with the pamphlet?
Just trying to clear up my confusion! Thanks , (name withheld)

"Jesus Christ was the only truly acceptable sacrifice for sin for He took upon Himself the nature and flesh of men, yet was free from the curse of the law because He had no sin of His own. Therefore, when He died a sinner's death, He could and did take the place of guilty sinners and perfectly satisfied the law's demand for their eternal death. No lamb or bull could ever have an equal value with the souls of men, yet because the Lord Jesus Christ is the infinite God, the value of His death as the Son of God is sufficient to wash away the sins of all men."

Dear (name withheld),
Thank you for your response to our May-June mailing. You have shown yourself to be extremely perceptive in pointing out the very crux of the question that relates to the redemptive work of our Blessed SAVIOR, the LORD JESUS CHRIST. I will try to answer your question as simply as I can, seeking to use the scripture alone as our basis for truth. First of all let me say, that the predominant theology of our day states exactly what you said that you have always believed, "that HE died for all who would accept HIS salvation". However a study of the scriptures sheds a different light on the subject if we approach them without this preconceived idea. Before we get into the scriptures let me set forth two concepts of what the scriptures may teach that the LORD accomplished by HIS death and then three possible scenario's that as a result of their understanding are taught by different groups of people who call themselves Christians.

What did the LORD JESUS accomplish when HE suffered, died, and arose from the dead? HE either: 1.Paid a judicial price for sin that satisfied the sin debt 2. Paid a price to make salvation a possibility. Now if the first is true, then those whose sin debt is paid are redeemed from the curse of the law and are set free from condemnation by HIS work alone. If the second is true, HE may have done a great deal for mankind in general but the salvation of men is actually dependent on something that they must individually do (usually this is said "they must believe')

These three possible. scenarios are normally set forth. 1.JESUS died and paid for the sins of all men, therefore all men will be saved.(This is generally known as Universalism and has historically been taught by Unitarians and deists) 2. JESUS died to make salvation a possibility for all men. Then man must supply the missing ingredient which completes the work of redemption, by accepting what GOD has given. Thus, HE did not actually purchase redemption for anyone. Therefore making it possible that some for whom CHRIST shed HIS blood would nonetheless ultimately perish. (This is generally known as Arminianism and has historically been taught by Methodists and their offshoots) 3. JESUS died for an elect people which were given to HIM in the the covenant of Redemption. HE has absolutely cancelled their sin debt and purchased for them eternal redemption with a work which is totally separate from anything they could ever say or do.(This view is generally known as Calvinism and has historically been taught by Presbyterians and Baptists, although many (Baptists especially) have in this century departed from this basis and leaned towards Arminianism.) We only use these terms (Arminianism, Calvinism, etc) in a general sense and by no means imply that anybody identifies with all of the views of those whose names are given to these various schools of thought or that these different systems are true because these names are associated with them.

Now that we've got all of that out of the way, (I hope I have not exhausted you) lets look at what the scripture has to say. In order to have a right understanding of the work of CHRIST in the atonement, we must first have a right understanding of man's need for atonement. The condition he is in by nature and to what extent he needs help. The scriptures indicate that man is in a fallen condition (Rom.5:12-21), unable to help himself (spiritually dead) (Eph.2:1) or even grasp spiritual things(I Cor.2:14). Our sins have caused a separation from GOD (Isa.59:2) we are without excuse before HIM (Rom.1:20) and we would be eternally separated from HIM(i.e.perish) unless our sins are atoned(i.e. paid) for by either ourselves or someone else in our behalf. (Rom.3:9,19,23;Heb.9:22,28) If we are able to participate in our redemption in any way then it would mean that we have some spiritual life and would not be as the scripture describes us as dead in trespasses and sins and unwilling (John 5:40) and unable in our own strength(John 6:44; 8:21;13:33) to come to HIM.

If we rightly understand the absolutely fallen condition of man by nature then we can begin to see that we need something more than just encouragement or teaching in order to know the way of GOD, we need a supernatural work which is not of our own making to bring us out of darkness and into the light. Thus the LORD JESUS said to Nicodemus, "Except a man be born again he cannot see the kingdom of GOD" (John 3:3) HE went on to describe this new birth as something which was not brought about by men but by the HOLY SPIRIT. John had stated the same thing in describing those who receive HIM (John 1:13) If this work is done by GOD apart from the work of men then there must be some basis upon which GOD bases who HE brings into this glorious light. The scripture again plainly tells us that HE has an elect people (Eph.1:4-14) which were chosen not based on any good in them (Rom.3:12; 9:8-24). They are the objects of HIS mercy with no room to boast(Eph.2:8; Rom. 11:6;I Cor.1:29-31; II Tim.1:9) for HE alone has made them to differ from another.(I Cor.4:7; John 3:27)

When we understand the purpose of GOD in election and the special love that HE has for that people which HE has called HIS own (John 6:37,39; 10:14,27;17:2) then we can start to understand that HIS work in the atonement is specific in purpose and powerful in nature. In other words HE came to pay the price for the sins of HIS people and HE accomplished exactly what HE set out to do. HE did not attempt to atone for sin and fail. The prophet Isaiah said "He shall see of the travail of HIS soul and shall be satisfied"(Isa.53:11). The angel told Joseph, "HE shall save his people from their sins" (Mat.1:21) not: HE shall try to save HIS people; nor HE will do everything HE can and yet some will be lost. The purpose of GOD will be done in the earth and the heavens and none can stay HIS hand (Dan.4:35). CHRIST's work in the atonement is perfect, it can neither be added to by the wills and ways of men nor can it be overturned nor dismissed by the unbelief of men. If CHRIST has paid for a mans sin debt then that man can never be brought into account for that which CHRIST has paid. The old songwriter said it like this, "Payment GOD will not twice demand, first at my bleeding SURETIES' hand and then again at mine". We who have fled for refuge in HIM find great consolation in this very fact.

I hope this rather lengthy explanation in answer to your first question has helped in your understanding of what I meant. I'm sure that I have probably raised as many questions in your mind as I have answered. These are doctrinal truths that are not easily swallowed upon first hearing especially if one has been roundly instructed in the Arminian theories which abound from pulpits far and wide. I will be glad to continue this discussion until you are satisfied that I am totally wrong, partially wrong, or totally right whichever the case may be. Let us look to HIS word and in it alone the TRUTH will be known. We bow to it. Now on to your second question which I believe I can answer a little more quickly since we have laid a basis for the concept of a definite atonement.

You asked if by my saying "the value of His death as the Son of God is sufficient to wash away the sins of all men" I was contradicting myself. The simple answer is no. We can say (as I am stating in the questioned statement) that because of the infinite value of the blood of the LAMB; it is indeed sufficient or adequate to take away all sin if that is what HE intended to do. However we believe the intended purpose of the LAMB in shedding HIS blood was of a specific nature and was shed deliberately to atone for the sins of HIS elect. We might say that HIS blood is sufficient for all(nothing else could be added) but efficient for HIS people. There is no such thing as a general atonement except in the sense in which we can say that HE died for mankind as a race. HE died for HIS people specifically and because of that death mankind is saved. Not everyone individually but everyone HE intended to save in the eternal covenant of redemption. There is no other sacrifice for sin. There is salvation in no other name.

I hope that we can continue this discussion and will be happy to do so. I will attempt to answer every question you ask. Sometimes the answer may be "I don't know". I don't claim to have all the answers, we yet see through a glass darkly. But I am confident that HE will give us the knowledge of such things as we need to know. I remain a sinner in search of that better country through the merits of CHRIST alone, mike mcinnis